Mortgage Amortization Schedule

So I bought my first house, its a FHA loan, and the biggest thing on my mind is how to pay as little interest as possible over the years. I'm buying a house cheaper than I could afford, so I could have left more money to prepay the principal, as often as possible and get the home paid much faster than 30 years . (I know that many people probably think, its my first house, I'm going to move, update, etc., but I doubt it. I rarely move, I was in the same 5 mile radius all my life, I plan to be in this house for a long period)

Currently I have my minimum down payment closing costs /. I also have enough money for an emergency fund. Then on top of what I have around $ 4K more than I can ask management. Now, since I'm not completely familiar with how the amortization schedule everything works, I wondered which side I should be better.

A) It is enough that the additional application deposit directly to my front, which will reduce my monthly payment of about $ 20 per month, but will be amortized in 30 years (as far as I know).

B) It is enough to make the minimum down payment, then in about a month the application of this principle for $ 4K. In this way, the loan has already been amortized, and (if my thinking is right), I will get a head start with the amortization schedule, so that all future payments will be paid more than my right to principal and less towards interest. And indeed take a year or two off the end of the loan. (That's how I think it works, although I do not understand how the ammortization works, so I'm asking the question)

So with the interest savings over the years in mind, which is a better option, or are they both pretty much the same?

I think they will end up roughly the same. The idea of redemption is to reduce the principal so you pay interest at a rate lower than overall balance. So let's say hypothetically that you had a 100k loan - if you paid 4k before or after the loan dispersed, you still want to achieve a balance between 96K pay interest on every month, rather than the full 100k. And actually, Option B would be slightly less advantageous, because you would from any interest on 100k first month, rather than 96k.

Pretty sure you can do anyway and you end up with essentially the same result, but I'd probably just give in advance.

You can also use the model of loan amortization that is included with Microsoft Excel to help understand. It allows you to enter a different amount of additional principal payment each month. I did a demo of how to use http://www.yourtwobits.com Flag

you more profits with a larger payment - all payments you do not have that $ 4,000 applied to principal, you lose interest savings long term

Looks like you do not put 20% down.
You will be impressed with this wicked PMI.
PMI does not apply to principal or interest and it is not tax deductible, not to mention it costs thousands every year.
It is like throwing money away.

If you can not put 20% down. And must pay PMI, work hard on paying your house down enough to take off. Forget everything else.
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Ok ... your math is a bit off, here's how it works.

I'll assume that you will get a fixed rate mortgage FHA to stay away from an ARM.

Let's say your payment is $ 1,000 per month. Your mortgage payment (let & #.